| Yes, it is. |
| 送交者: 零加一中 2013月01月14日10:38:26 于 [灵机一动] 发送悄悄话 |
| 回 答: 好像是设((c-b), a) = p， 不是从 由 粱远声 于 2013-01-14 10:31:42 |
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所以( (c- b)，( (c- b)2+3bc) ) =1 ( 7 ) 由( 6 )式知(c- b)︱a3 设（(c- b)，a）=p 且c-b=pp1( 8 ) Last line is from the second line. If not, that means he made another assumption why try to prove the first assumption. Then the proof wont work. |
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