Yes, it is. |
送交者: 零加一中 2013月01月14日10:38:26 於 [靈機一動] 發送悄悄話 |
回 答: 好像是設((c-b), a) = p, 不是從 由 粱遠聲 於 2013-01-14 10:31:42 |
所以( (c- b),( (c- b)2+3bc) ) =1 ( 7 ) 由( 6 )式知(c- b)︱a3 設((c- b),a)=p 且c-b=pp1( 8 ) Last line is from the second line. If not, that means he made another assumption why try to prove the first assumption. Then the proof wont work. |
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實用資訊 | |